The basic form of my question is: According to Levin's argument, wouldn't any sexual activity other than very
straightforward, possibly child-producing intercourse also be a misuse of body
parts?
Apparently. I am not sure if Levin actually holds this view, but it does seem to follow from his argument. It is possible that he believes this to some extent - some people, especially those who hold generally conservative views, disapprove of any type of creative sexual activity - but taking the argument to its logical limit seems too far. For example, if one did so, kissing (which is not always sexual, but is often) would be a misuse of one's mouth. I think that Levin is unlikely to support this view.
Furthermore, Levin also argues in favour of heterosexual, monogamous marriage - but there is some evidence to suggest that, particularly during prehistory, polygamy was actually more evolutionarily beneficial to the survival of the human race. If this is so, and monogamous marriage is a purely cultural phenomenon, then in order to be consistent Levin would have to modify his argument to reflect this, which is something I think he probably would not do.
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